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Reconciling (during iddah period) after one talaq pronounced. - 7th Century Generation

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Reconciling (during iddah period) after one talaq pronounced.

iddah talaq

3 replies to this topic

#1 Guest_Avaya_*

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Posted 19 March 2012 - 11:20 AM

Salam

Unfortunately my wife and I had a difficult last few years, which resulted in a mutually agreed (not sure if that is the best phrase) talaq last month. Alhamdulillah, we have now reconciled, and want to make sure we go about it the correct way.

My understanding is that, just agreeing to reconcile is enough & nothing further needs to be done. However my wife is under the impression that we also need to pay a fidya (or similar) for 70 people. Can anyone confirm if this, or anything else, needs to be done when reconciling after talaq has been said.

Just to avoid doubt, over the last few years, we have always agreed to try and work things out and even discussed talaq over the last year. Pronouncing talaq was not a quick, reactionary, easy, etc... decision. And InshAllah, Allah will help our marriage so it is never pronounced again.

#2 Mu'mina

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Posted 19 March 2012 - 10:59 PM

*bump*

#3 UmmMaryam

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Posted 23 March 2012 - 07:54 AM

May Allah swt make your marriage strong? It’s very nice to hear that your situation ended in reconciliation. You would have to take your question to a scholar. All I know is that if talaq was pronounced deliberately, without madness or intense irrational anger, it is irrevocable, so you have 2 talaqs left. I never heard that paying fidya could overturn a pronouncement of talaq, if that is what your asking. Allah swt knows best

Edited by UmmMaryam, 23 March 2012 - 07:56 AM.


#4 neelu

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Posted 01 April 2012 - 09:42 PM

Ask her for evidence, or if she arrived at this view due to what she heard from someone else, ask the person who told her this to provide evidence as that can maybe help provide some clarity. I personally have my doubts because there was an incident regarding the Prophet (saw) separating from Aisha (ra) and Hafsa (ra) for one month and I've read some pages of English translations of Ibn Kathir including a tafsir of surah 66 and although it describes the incident of separation for one month and the whole context surrounding this, but there is no mention or hint of any fidya being given when they reconciled. I'm not a scholar though and have not read extensively on this subject so could be completely wrong.




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